Onco Life Hospitals

Doctor & Healthcare Professionals FAQs

Most Popular Questions


doctor & healthcare professionals FAQ

1. What are the most common red flag symptoms general practitioners should not ignore for early cancer detection?

Unintentional weight loss, persistent fatigue, non-healing ulcers, unexplained anemia, hematuria, chronic cough, hoarseness, postmenopausal bleeding, or palpable masses (especially hard, immobile, painless ones) should prompt further investigation.

2. When is PET-CT indicated in suspected cancer cases?

PET-CT is indicated for staging, assessing treatment response, restaging in recurrence, or identifying unknown primaries. It combines metabolic and anatomical imaging, especially useful in lymphomas, lung cancer, and head & neck malignancies.

3. How to distinguish malignant from benign lymphadenopathy?

Malignant nodes are often hard, non-tender, immobile, and supraclavicular. Benign nodes tend to be soft, tender, and mobile. Nodes >1.5 cm lasting >2–3 weeks warrant FNAC or excisional biopsy.

4. Are tumour markers reliable screening tools?

No. Tumour markers like CEA, CA-125, or PSA lack sensitivity and specificity. They are better used for monitoring response or recurrence in known malignancies.

5. When should a primary care physician consider paraneoplastic syndromes?

If a patient presents with unexplained neurological symptoms, SIADH, hypercalcemia, or dermatomyositis without a clear cause, a malignancy workup should be initiated.

6. What is the role of FOBT in cancer screening?

Fecal occult blood test is a non-invasive screening tool for colorectal cancer, especially in patients >50 years. Positive tests require colonoscopic evaluation.

7. What cancers should be considered in a smoker with chronic cough and hemoptysis?

Lung cancer (especially squamous cell carcinoma), laryngeal carcinoma, and sometimes GI malignancies (from metastasis or coagulopathy) should be considered.

8. How often should a woman undergo mammography screening?

For average-risk women, biennial screening mammography is recommended between 50–74 years. High-risk women (e.g., BRCA-positive) may need annual MRI + mammogram starting earlier.

9. Can HPV vaccination reduce cervical cancer incidence?

Yes. HPV vaccination (esp. types 16 & 18) significantly reduces cervical dysplasia and cancer risk. It’s most effective if given before sexual debut.

10. What is the utility of LDH in oncology practice?

LDH is a non-specific marker of cell turnover. Elevated levels are common in lymphomas, germ cell tumours, and metastatic disease. It may serve as a prognostic marker.

11. When is biopsy contraindicated in a suspected cancer case?

Biopsy is avoided in highly vascular tumours (e.g., pheochromocytoma, RCC without imaging confirmation) or when surgical resection is planned directly (e.g., resectable testicular mass).

12. What cancers are associated with paraneoplastic hypercalcemia?

Commonly seen in squamous cell carcinomas (lung, head & neck), renal cell carcinoma, and multiple myeloma due to PTHrP or bone metastasis.

13. When should liquid biopsy be considered?

In select advanced cancers, liquid biopsy (circulating tumour DNA) can help detect mutations (e.g., EGFR in lung cancer) non-invasively when tissue biopsy is risky.

14. What is the most common cancer in rural Indian women?

Cervical cancer remains prevalent in rural India due to lack of screening and awareness. VIA and Pap smears are cost-effective screening tools.

15. Can a normal PSA level rule out prostate cancer?

Not always. Some aggressive prostate cancers may not raise PSA significantly. PSA density, velocity, and DRE findings also matter.

16. What’s the best first step in evaluating unexplained anemia in elderly patients?

Rule out GI malignancy via fecal occult blood test and colonoscopy. Iron deficiency in elderly males or postmenopausal women warrants malignancy workup.

17. What is ECOG performance status and why is it important?

ECOG (0–5) quantifies functional status. It guides treatment decisions — chemo is generally not advised if ECOG ≥3 due to high risk and poor tolerance.

18. What is the role of neoadjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer?

Neoadjuvant chemo helps shrink tumours, makes inoperable tumours operable, allows breast conservation, and offers early insight into chemo responsiveness.

19. What should GPs know about colorectal cancer presentations?

Change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, anemia, tenesmus, or abdominal mass in elderly patients should prompt early colonoscopy.

20. Is BRCA testing only for patients with breast cancer?

No. It is also relevant in ovarian, pancreatic, and prostate cancers with family history. It helps guide surveillance and prophylactic surgery in relatives.

21. What is the significance of Ki-67 in cancer pathology?

Ki-67 is a proliferation index. A high value suggests aggressive tumour behavior and may guide chemo decision-making, especially in breast cancer.

22. How long should patients be followed up post cancer remission?

Usually 5 years minimum with tapering frequency: every 3 months in year 1–2, every 6 months in year 3–5. Some cancers require lifelong surveillance.

23. What is checkpoint inhibition and when is it used?

Checkpoint inhibitors like PD-1/PD-L1 blockers release the brakes on T-cells to fight cancer. They are used in melanoma, lung, bladder, and head & neck cancers.

24. Can general physicians manage febrile neutropenia?

Febrile neutropenia is an oncologic emergency. It requires hospital admission, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and urgent referral to oncology.

25. What is the implication of B-symptoms in lymphoma?

Fever, night sweats, and weight loss (B symptoms) indicate systemic involvement and worse prognosis in Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

26. Should GPs start treatment if biopsy results are pending but suspicion is high?

Only if clinically indicated in emergencies like spinal cord compression or SVC syndrome. Otherwise, wait for histopathological confirmation.

27. What is tumour lysis syndrome and when should it be anticipated?

TLS occurs when a large tumour burden is rapidly destroyed, releasing electrolytes. Seen in leukemias/lymphomas post-chemo. Prophylaxis with hydration/allopurinol is key.

28. Is adjuvant therapy always necessary after cancer surgery?

Not always. It depends on margin status, node involvement, and tumour grade. Multidisciplinary review is essential.

29. What is the use of CD markers in oncology?

Cluster Differentiation (CD) markers help classify hematological malignancies (e.g., CD20 in B-cell lymphomas) and guide targeted therapy.

30. What is minimal residual disease (MRD) in blood cancers?

MRD refers to the small number of cancer cells remaining after treatment, detectable by flow cytometry or PCR. It helps guide prognosis and further therapy.

31. When should a primary care doctor suspect multiple myeloma?

Suspect in patients with unexplained bone pain, anemia, hypercalcemia, or renal dysfunction. Check serum protein electrophoresis and Bence-Jones proteins.

32. What cancers commonly metastasize to bone?

Breast, prostate, lung, kidney, and thyroid cancers are notorious for bone metastases. Present with pain, fractures, or spinal cord compression.

33. What is the role of prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI)?

Used in small cell lung cancer after response to chemo/radiation to reduce brain metastasis risk. Decision depends on disease extent and response.

34. Can GPs administer intramuscular antiemetics to chemo patients?

Yes, for symptomatic relief. However, they must inform the treating oncologist and ensure compatibility with ongoing therapy.

35. What lab abnormalities suggest paraneoplastic syndrome?

Unexplained hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, or polycythemia may suggest underlying malignancy.

36. What is the most common malignancy in Indian males?

Oral cavity cancer, largely due to tobacco use. GPs should examine oral mucosa routinely in high-risk individuals.

37. What is sentinel lymph node biopsy?

A procedure to identify and test the first draining lymph node from a tumour site. Common in breast and melanoma to avoid extensive nodal dissection.

38. How is triple-negative breast cancer managed?

Lacks ER/PR/HER2. Requires chemotherapy as hormonal and HER2-targeted therapies are ineffective. Has poorer prognosis.

39. What should be monitored during cisplatin-based chemotherapy?

Renal function, electrolytes (esp. Mg, K), hearing tests (for ototoxicity), and hydration status must be closely tracked.

40. When should palliative care be initiated?

Early in the course of any metastatic or advanced cancer. It improves symptom control, emotional well-being, and sometimes even survival.

41. How to differentiate malignant pleural effusion from benign?

Malignant effusions are often exudative, recurrent, hemorrhagic, and associated with weight loss or underlying mass. Cytology confirms malignancy.

42. What is cachexia and how is it managed?

Cancer cachexia is metabolic weight loss with muscle wasting, often refractory to nutrition. Managed with supportive care, appetite stimulants, and palliative interventions.

43. How do checkpoint inhibitors cause immune-related adverse events (irAEs)?

By boosting immune activity, they can cause colitis, hepatitis, pneumonitis, and endocrinopathies. Requires high suspicion and steroids.

44. Are cancer patients eligible for COVID-19 vaccination?

Yes. Most patients should be vaccinated, though timing should be optimized around chemotherapy or bone marrow suppression.

45. What imaging is preferred for testicular cancer staging?

Scrotal ultrasound for diagnosis; CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis for staging. Tumour markers (AFP, β-HCG, LDH) are also essential.

46. Can low-dose aspirin reduce cancer risk?

Some studies show long-term aspirin use may reduce colorectal cancer risk. Discuss with caution in patients at risk for GI bleeding.

47. What is the most common oncologic emergency in leukemia?

Tumour lysis syndrome, leukostasis (esp. in AML), and DIC (esp. in APL). Needs urgent haematology referral.

48. How should GPs handle suspected treatment complications?

Promptly assess severity, communicate with oncology, and avoid empirical treatment unless emergency. Document thoroughly.

49. When is bone marrow biopsy indicated in solid tumours?

Rarely, unless bone marrow involvement is suspected (e.g., small cell lung cancer with cytopenias). Mostly done for hematological malignancies.

50. What does HER2-positive mean and how is it treated?

HER2 overexpression indicates aggressive breast cancer subtype. Treated with anti-HER2 agents like trastuzumab and pertuzumab.

51. What is the role of genetic counseling in oncology?

Genetic counseling helps patients understand hereditary cancer risks (e.g., BRCA, Lynch syndrome), guides preventive strategies, and informs family members for testing or surveillance.

52. When should palliative chemotherapy be offered?

In metastatic cancers where cure is not possible, palliative chemo may be offered to prolong survival, reduce tumour burden, and improve symptoms — considering performance status and patient wishes.

53. Can CT scans replace endoscopy in GI cancer detection?

No. While CT can detect masses, endoscopy with biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosing esophageal, gastric, and colorectal cancers.

54. What is pseudoprogression in immunotherapy?

An apparent increase in tumour size due to immune cell infiltration, not true progression. Confirmed via follow-up imaging or biopsy. Common with PD-1/PD-L1 inhibitors.

55. How to manage a cancer patient presenting with spinal cord compression?

Start high-dose corticosteroids, obtain MRI urgently, and refer for radiation or surgery. Delay can result in irreversible neurological damage.

56. What is the concept of oligometastatic disease?

A state where cancer has limited metastases (usually <5 sites). Aggressive local therapy (e.g., SBRT or metastasectomy) may be curative or prolong survival.

57. What are late effects of chemotherapy that GPs should monitor for?

Cardiotoxicity (esp. with anthracyclines), neuropathy, secondary malignancies, infertility, and cognitive dysfunction (“chemo brain”).

58. How to differentiate between brain metastasis and primary CNS tumour?

Brain mets are usually multiple, located at grey-white junction; primary tumours are solitary. MRI with contrast and biopsy assist diagnosis.

59. What is the relevance of microsatellite instability (MSI) in cancer?

MSI-high tumours (e.g., in colorectal or endometrial cancer) respond well to immunotherapy and may indicate Lynch syndrome.

60. Can hormonal therapies be continued indefinitely?

Yes, especially in ER-positive breast cancer or metastatic prostate cancer. Duration depends on tolerance, disease response, and recurrence risk.

61. When should GPs suspect paraneoplastic encephalitis?

Subacute memory loss, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, or ataxia without infection may suggest autoimmune/paraneoplastic encephalitis. Urgent referral and workup are needed.

62. What is the difference between curative and consolidative radiotherapy?

Curative RT aims to eradicate disease. Consolidative RT is given after systemic therapy to reinforce response (common in lymphoma, lung cancer).

63. What is the significance of tumour mutational burden (TMB)?

TMB reflects the number of mutations in a tumour. High TMB may predict better response to immunotherapy in some cancers.

64. What is the current standard for H. pylori eradication in gastric cancer prevention?

Triple therapy (PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole) for 14 days. Recommended in high-risk populations to reduce gastric cancer incidence.

65. When should patients with head & neck cancer undergo dental clearance?

Before radiation or surgery. Dental infections can worsen mucositis or osteoradionecrosis post-radiation.

66. What is a cancer of unknown primary (CUP)?

Metastatic cancer with no identifiable primary despite extensive workup. Managed based on histology and site — biopsy and IHC are crucial.

67. What is the role of tumour boards in cancer care?

Multidisciplinary tumour boards improve decision-making by involving oncologists, surgeons, pathologists, radiologists, and other specialists for personalized care.

68. Can GPs prescribe hormonal therapy for breast/prostate cancer?

Yes, under guidance. Tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, or androgen deprivation agents can be continued in stable patients with oncologist input.

69. When should re-biopsy be considered in cancer follow-up?

In cases of relapse, resistance, or atypical progression to assess for mutation changes (e.g., EGFR T790M in lung cancer) and guide next-line treatment.

70. What is the role of MRI in prostate cancer?

Multiparametric MRI helps in diagnosis, staging, and guiding biopsy (PI-RADS scoring system). It improves accuracy in detecting clinically significant cancer.

71. What are immune checkpoint inhibitors and when are they used?

They block CTLA-4 or PD-1/PD-L1 pathways, boosting T-cell response. Used in melanoma, lung, RCC, bladder, HNSCC, and MSI-high tumours.

72. What is radiofrequency ablation (RFA) in cancer care?

A minimally invasive technique using thermal energy to destroy small tumours (commonly in liver or lung), useful in selected oligometastatic cases.

73. When is HIPEC indicated?

Heated intraperitoneal chemotherapy is used during surgery for peritoneal carcinomatosis (e.g., ovarian, colon). Requires expert centres.

74. What are red flags for brain metastases in known cancer patients?

New-onset headache, seizures, vision changes, focal deficits, or altered sensorium. Prompt neuroimaging is essential.

75. What is cytoreductive surgery?

Surgical removal of as much tumour as possible (e.g., ovarian cancer) before or during chemotherapy. It improves outcomes in selected patients.

76. How is G-CSF used in cancer patients?

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor prevents/treats neutropenia. Used prophylactically when febrile neutropenia risk exceeds 20%.

77. What is Lhermitte’s sign post radiation?

An electric-shock sensation down the spine with neck flexion — a delayed effect of spinal cord radiation. Usually self-limiting.

78. How to assess response to immunotherapy?

Using immune-related response criteria (iRECIST), as pseudo-progression can occur. Clinical judgment is vital.

79. Can patients with HIV receive cancer treatment?

Yes. Most can tolerate standard treatments. Drug interactions and immune status (CD4 count) must be considered.

80. What are financial assistance options for cancer patients in India?

PMJAY, MJPJAY (Maharashtra), NGO funding, Tata Trusts, and hospital-based social work departments assist eligible patients.

81. Can TB be misdiagnosed as cancer or vice versa?

Yes. Both may present with weight loss, lymphadenopathy, or lung lesions. Tissue diagnosis (biopsy) is key.

82. What is the role of ER/PR/HER2 testing in breast cancer?

It guides treatment: ER/PR-positive cancers need hormonal therapy; HER2-positive cancers require trastuzumab. Triple-negative needs chemo.

83. What is androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) and how is it given?

Used in prostate cancer to reduce testosterone levels via GnRH agonists/antagonists or orchiectomy. Slows disease progression.

84. What vaccines are important for post-treatment cancer survivors?

Flu, COVID-19, pneumococcal, and Hepatitis B (if not immune). Avoid live vaccines during immunosuppression.

85. What is the function of IHC in cancer diagnosis?

Immunohistochemistry helps determine tumour origin and receptor status — critical in CUP, breast cancer, and lymphomas.

86. How to handle terminal cancer patients with uncontrolled pain?

Use WHO analgesic ladder. Morphine is safe and effective. Consider palliative consult and adjuvants for neuropathic pain.

87. What is stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)?

High-dose, focused radiation delivered in 1–5 sessions for small brain/spine metastases. Requires precise planning.

88. What is cancer survivorship care?

Post-treatment care focusing on surveillance, secondary prevention, psychosocial support, and managing late effects.

89. Can cancer survivors conceive or safely deliver children?

Many can. Fertility assessment before treatment is vital. Pregnancy is safe after remission depending on cancer type and treatment history.

90. What is the difference between adjuvant and concurrent chemoradiation?

Adjuvant chemo is given post-radiation or surgery. Concurrent chemoradiation is delivered together to maximize synergy (e.g., cervical cancer).

91. How are cancer-related thromboembolic events managed?

LMWH or DOACs (e.g., apixaban) are used for DVT/PE in cancer. Duration often extends beyond 6 months depending on cancer activity.

92. What is a cancer registry and why is it important?

A systematic database of cancer cases. It helps with epidemiology, research, resource planning, and improving patient outcomes.

93. When to suspect leptomeningeal carcinomatosis?

Persistent headache, cranial nerve palsies, confusion, or seizures in cancer patients. Diagnosed via MRI and CSF cytology.

94. What are common causes of sudden death in cancer patients?

Massive PE, arrhythmias (from chemo), brain herniation, hemorrhage, and infection. Advance care planning is crucial.

95. How to identify chemotherapy extravasation and what to do?

Pain, swelling, and redness at IV site. Stop infusion immediately. Some agents require antidotes (e.g., dexrazoxane for anthracyclines).

96. Is there any role for aspirin in cancer prevention?

Aspirin may reduce colorectal cancer risk in select high-risk groups. Benefits must be weighed against bleeding risk.

97. What are immune-related endocrinopathies with checkpoint inhibitors?

Hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, and Type 1 DM are common. Monitor TSH, cortisol regularly. Treat with hormone replacement.

98. When to refer to hospice care?

Refer when curative options are exhausted and patient wishes focus on comfort, dignity, and quality of life. Early referrals improve outcomes.

99. How do psychological issues present in cancer patients?

Anxiety, depression, adjustment disorders, and suicidal ideation are not uncommon. Screen regularly and refer to psycho-oncology services.

100. What is the golden rule for a non-oncologist managing a cancer patient?

Avoid empirical treatment. Focus on stabilization, supportive care, and urgent referral. Coordinate with the oncology team for continuity.

101. What are the implications of tumour heterogeneity in cancer treatment?

Tumour heterogeneity refers to genetic and phenotypic variability within tumours. It can lead to differential drug response, resistance, and challenges in biopsy-based treatment planning. Multiregion biopsies or liquid biopsies can help overcome this limitation.

102. How does clonal evolution affect cancer progression?

Cancer evolves by accumulating mutations. Treatment can select resistant clones. Understanding clonal dynamics is crucial for adapting therapy, especially in hematological malignancies.

103. What is the role of ctDNA (circulating tumour DNA) in modern oncology?

ctDNA helps in early detection of relapse, real-time monitoring of tumour burden, and identifying actionable mutations without tissue biopsy. It's especially useful in lung, colon, and breast cancers.

104. When should doctors consider re-challenging with chemotherapy agents?

If the patient responded well initially and had a long treatment-free interval, re-challenge may be beneficial, especially with platinum-based agents in ovarian and lung cancer.

105. What are ‘driver mutations’ and why are they important?

Driver mutations are essential for tumour growth (e.g., EGFR, ALK, BRAF). Targeting them with precision therapies leads to better outcomes and fewer side effects.

106. How does tumour microenvironment (TME) influence treatment response?

TME includes immune cells, fibroblasts, and blood vessels. It affects drug delivery and immune evasion. Therapies targeting the TME (e.g., angiogenesis inhibitors) are emerging.

107. What is the clinical significance of PD-L1 expression testing?

PD-L1 expression helps predict response to checkpoint inhibitors. However, not all PD-L1-positive patients respond, and some PD-L1-negative may still benefit.

108. When should next-generation sequencing (NGS) be recommended?

NGS is useful in advanced/metastatic cancers to identify actionable mutations. It's standard in NSCLC, melanoma, cholangiocarcinoma, and others.

109. What is the difference between progression and pseudo-progression on imaging?

Progression shows consistent increase in tumour burden; pseudo-progression is transient enlargement due to immune infiltration, commonly seen with immunotherapy.

110. What are the management steps for immune-related colitis?

Discontinue immunotherapy, start corticosteroids (prednisone 1–2 mg/kg), escalate to infliximab if refractory. Rule out infections like C. difficile.

111. How to approach long-term surveillance of Hodgkin lymphoma survivors?

Surveillance includes yearly thyroid function tests, cardiac evaluation post-radiation, breast cancer screening starting early in women, and fertility monitoring.

112. What is CAR-T cell therapy and where is it used?

Chimeric antigen receptor T-cells are engineered to target tumour antigens. Used in refractory B-cell malignancies like ALL and DLBCL with impressive remission rates.

113. What is the significance of BRAF mutation in cancers?

BRAF mutations, especially V600E, are common in melanoma, colorectal, and thyroid cancers. They can be targeted with BRAF inhibitors (vemurafenib, dabrafenib).

114. When is a watchful waiting strategy appropriate?

In low-grade, asymptomatic cancers (e.g., CLL, prostate cancer), delaying treatment may avoid unnecessary toxicity without compromising outcomes.

115. What is ‘financial toxicity’ and how can doctors mitigate it?

Refers to the economic burden of treatment. Physicians should discuss generic options, help patients access insurance/government schemes, and consider cost-effectiveness.

116. What is hyperprogression in cancer therapy?

A paradoxical acceleration of tumour growth following immunotherapy. Mechanism unclear. Requires early imaging follow-up and therapy change.

117. Can checkpoint inhibitors be continued after progression?

Sometimes yes, if pseudo-progression is suspected or if the patient is clinically stable. Multidisciplinary decision-making is essential.

118. What is the role of MR-LINAC in radiation oncology?

MR-LINAC combines MRI imaging with linear accelerator, allowing real-time adaptive radiotherapy. Offers superior precision for tumours near critical structures.

119. How to approach cancer in pregnant women?

Multidisciplinary approach is crucial. Many treatments (like surgery and certain chemo agents) are safe in 2nd/3rd trimester, but radiation is generally avoided.

120. What are checkpoint inhibitor-associated endocrinopathies?

Includes thyroiditis, adrenal insufficiency, Type 1 diabetes, and hypophysitis. Lifelong hormone replacement may be needed.

121. When is total neoadjuvant therapy (TNT) used in rectal cancer?

TNT involves chemo and chemoradiation before surgery. Improves compliance and pathological complete response. Increasingly used in locally advanced rectal cancer.

122. What is radiomics in cancer imaging?

A field that uses AI to extract quantitative features from medical images to predict treatment response and prognosis.

123. What is the role of artificial intelligence in oncology today?

AI is used in pathology (digital slide reading), radiology (nodule detection), prognosis prediction, and treatment planning.

124. Can COVID-19 accelerate cancer progression?

Evidence is inconclusive, but delays in diagnosis/treatment due to the pandemic have led to advanced presentations.

125. What are the implications of cancer cachexia on treatment decisions?

Cachexia leads to poor tolerance to chemo, decreased survival, and lower QoL. Nutritional interventions and early palliative care help.

126. How to differentiate cancer fatigue from depression?

Cancer fatigue is persistent and not relieved by rest. Depression includes anhedonia, hopelessness, sleep/appetite changes. Both may co-exist and require assessment tools.

127. What is prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI)?

Used in small cell lung cancer to prevent brain metastases. Indicated in patients with good response to first-line treatment.

128. What is the role of SBRT (stereotactic body radiotherapy)?

Used to treat small tumours with high precision in few sessions. Indicated in early-stage lung cancer, spinal mets, and oligometastases.

129. What are the common late effects of radiation therapy?

Fibrosis, lymphedema, secondary malignancies, hypothyroidism, xerostomia, and infertility, depending on the irradiated site.

130. What is metronomic chemotherapy?

Low-dose, continuous chemo aimed at antiangiogenic effects with fewer side effects. Used in palliative and pediatric oncology.

131. What is the rationale behind maintenance therapy?

To prolong remission using low-intensity treatment (e.g., bevacizumab in colorectal cancer, PARP inhibitors in ovarian cancer).

132. When should HIPEC be considered?

In peritoneal carcinomatosis from colorectal, ovarian, or pseudomyxoma peritonei. Requires specialized centres and patient selection.

133. What are ‘basket trials’ in oncology?

Clinical trials enrolling patients based on molecular markers rather than tumour type (e.g., NTRK fusions).

134. How to manage venous thromboembolism (VTE) in cancer patients?

LMWH or DOACs are preferred. Duration is typically 3–6 months, extended if active cancer persists.

135. What is MRD (minimal residual disease) in haematology?

Undetectable cancer cells post-treatment identified by sensitive tests like PCR or flow cytometry. Predicts relapse risk in leukemias.

136. What role do microbiomes play in cancer treatment response?

Gut flora can influence immunotherapy efficacy and chemo toxicity. Probiotics and dietary modulation are being explored.

137. How should doctors manage fertility preservation in AYA (Adolescent and Young Adult) cancer patients?

Refer early to fertility specialists. Options include sperm banking, oocyte/embryo cryopreservation, and ovarian suppression.

138. What are considerations in treating elderly cancer patients?

Assess functional status, comorbidities, polypharmacy, and life expectancy. Geriatric assessment helps personalize treatment.

139. Can cancer patients receive live vaccines?

Generally contraindicated during active treatment or immunosuppression. Killed/inactivated vaccines are safe.

140. What is oncofertility?

An interdisciplinary field addressing fertility preservation in cancer patients, integrating oncology and reproductive medicine.

141. What is an oncologic emergency and which ones require urgent GP attention?

Examples: Spinal cord compression, febrile neutropenia, SVC syndrome, tumour lysis syndrome. GPs should stabilize and urgently refer.

142. What is the role of dexamethasone in oncology?

Used for cerebral edema, antiemesis, appetite stimulation, and to reduce inflammation in immunotherapy side effects.

143. What is pancytopenia in a cancer patient suggestive of?

Possible causes include marrow infiltration, aplasia from chemo, MDS, or drug-induced cytopenia. Needs bone marrow evaluation.

144. How do you differentiate chemo brain from other cognitive decline?

Chemo brain is reversible and affects memory, focus, and multitasking. Dementia shows progressive, structural changes.

145. What’s the role of nutritional support during chemo?

Maintains weight, improves immunity and treatment tolerance. High-protein, high-calorie diets and supplementation may be needed.

146. What are indications for prophylactic mastectomy?

High-risk patients (e.g., BRCA mutation carriers). Done with counseling on benefits, risks, and reconstructive options.

147. What is survivorship bias in cancer statistics?

Overestimating success rates because only survivors are included in data, while those lost to follow-up are missed.

148. What is the utility of tumour boards in rural or small hospitals?

Virtual tumour boards ensure evidence-based, multidisciplinary decisions, especially where oncology services are limited.

149. Can cancer treatment trigger autoimmune disease?

Yes, especially with immunotherapy. Patients may develop autoimmune thyroiditis, diabetes, or arthritis.

150. How to recognize burnout in oncology professionals?

Symptoms include emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced personal accomplishment. Regular peer support and mindfulness help.

151. What are companion diagnostics in oncology?

These are tests used to determine whether a patient is likely to benefit from a specific targeted therapy. Example: EGFR mutation testing before prescribing osimertinib in NSCLC.

152. What is the role of NTRK fusion testing?

NTRK fusions are rare but actionable mutations. Tumours with this fusion respond to TRK inhibitors like larotrectinib — regardless of tumour origin.

153. What is MSI-H and how does it influence treatment?

MSI-High status indicates defective mismatch repair (dMMR). Such tumours respond well to immunotherapy (e.g., pembrolizumab) and are common in colorectal and endometrial cancers.

154. How to interpret equivocal HER2 results in breast cancer?

When IHC is 2+, confirm with FISH (fluorescence in situ hybridization). Accurate HER2 status is critical for selecting HER2-targeted therapies.

155. What does TMB (Tumour Mutational Burden) indicate?

High TMB suggests a higher number of mutations and predicts better immunotherapy response. Measured via NGS, it is a pan-cancer biomarker.

156. When should a GP refer a patient with persistent back pain for cancer evaluation?

If pain is nocturnal, progressive, associated with weight loss, neurological signs, or prior cancer history — urgent imaging is warranted.

157. How to handle incidental adrenal mass in a cancer patient?

Rule out metastasis via PET-CT. Biochemical workup and size (>4cm), attenuation on CT, and growth rate help in decision-making.

158. What cancer red flags should GPs recognize in dermatological lesions?

Asymmetry, irregular borders, color variation, diameter >6mm, and evolving nature ("ABCDE") suggest melanoma. Refer to dermatology urgently.

159. What are paraneoplastic syndromes a GP should not miss?

Hypercalcemia, SIADH, dermatomyositis, cerebellar degeneration, and hypertrophic osteoarthropathy may precede cancer diagnosis by months.

160. How can a GP manage opioid-induced constipation in cancer patients?

Routine use of stimulant laxatives (e.g., senna) and stool softeners. Consider PAMORAs like naloxegol for refractory cases.

161. What cancers most commonly metastasize to the brain?

Lung, breast, melanoma, renal, and colorectal cancers. Brain mets may be the initial sign of cancer in some cases.

162. What is leptomeningeal carcinomatosis?

Cancer spread to the leptomeninges, seen in breast, lung, and leukemia/lymphoma. Diagnosed via CSF cytology and MRI.

163. What are the neurologic complications of radiation therapy to the brain?

Include cognitive decline, leukoencephalopathy, necrosis, seizures, and rarely Lhermitte’s sign or stroke-like episodes.

164. What is chemo-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)?

Caused by drugs like taxanes, platinum agents, and vincristine. Presents with numbness, tingling, and gait instability. Dose reduction or change may be needed.

165. How to differentiate brain abscess from metastasis on imaging?

MRI with diffusion-weighted imaging helps. Abscess shows restricted diffusion, while metastases usually don’t. Biopsy or clinical context often needed.

166. How to approach solitary pulmonary nodules in smokers?

Size, borders, growth rate, and PET uptake guide malignancy risk. Consider CT surveillance, biopsy, or surgical resection based on risk stratification.

167. What is the role of liquid biopsy in lung cancer?

Used to detect actionable mutations (e.g., EGFR, ALK) when tissue biopsy is inadequate or inaccessible.

168. When is prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) indicated in lung cancer?

In small-cell lung cancer with good response to chemoradiation, PCI reduces brain metastasis risk and improves survival.

169. What’s the difference between NSCLC and SCLC in management?

NSCLC is treated based on stage with surgery, targeted therapy, or immunotherapy. SCLC is usually treated with chemoradiation due to rapid growth and early spread.

170. How does PD-L1 status affect lung cancer treatment?

High PD-L1 (≥50%) in NSCLC supports use of first-line immunotherapy (e.g., pembrolizumab) without chemo in select cases.

171. What is the significance of p16 in cervical pathology?

p16 overexpression is a surrogate marker for high-risk HPV infection and is used to confirm dysplasia in equivocal cases.

172. How to counsel young patients with early-stage cervical cancer?

Options like radical trachelectomy preserve fertility. Requires strict selection and monitoring.

173. What are the long-term effects of pelvic radiation in women?

Includes infertility, vaginal stenosis, premature menopause, and bladder/bowel dysfunction.

174. When to suspect Lynch syndrome in endometrial cancer?

If diagnosed <50 years, with personal/family history of colorectal or other Lynch-related cancers. MSI testing and genetic counseling are recommended.

175. How is CA-125 used in follow-up of ovarian cancer?

It’s a sensitive marker for monitoring recurrence but should not be used in isolation for diagnosis or treatment decisions.

176. What is the role of PSMA PET in prostate cancer?

It offers superior sensitivity and specificity for detecting metastatic and recurrent disease compared to conventional imaging.

177. When is active surveillance appropriate in prostate cancer?

In low-risk, localized disease (Gleason ≤6, PSA <10). Involves regular PSA, MRI, and biopsy monitoring.

178. What is the significance of Gleason score?

It grades prostate cancer based on architecture. Higher scores (≥8) indicate aggressive disease and worse prognosis.

179. What are side effects of androgen deprivation therapy (ADT)?

Include hot flashes, osteoporosis, sarcopenia, fatigue, and metabolic syndrome. Bone health and cardiovascular risk must be monitored.

180. What is the role of Enzalutamide or Abiraterone?

Used in metastatic castrate-resistant prostate cancer (mCRPC). These androgen pathway inhibitors improve survival significantly.

181. How does HPV status affect head & neck cancer prognosis?

HPV-positive oropharyngeal cancers have better response and survival. Less aggressive treatment may be appropriate in select cases.

182. When is sentinel lymph node biopsy used in head & neck cancer?

Primarily in early-stage oral cavity cancers to assess occult nodal metastases without full neck dissection.

183. What are common complications of laryngectomy?

Include loss of natural speech, stoma care requirements, tracheoesophageal puncture issues, and risk of aspiration.

184. How to manage oral mucositis from radiation?

Good oral hygiene, topical anesthetics, saline rinses, and agents like benzydamine or palifermin help reduce severity.

185. What is the impact of perineural invasion in head & neck cancer?

It is associated with poor prognosis and indicates the need for adjuvant radiation or chemoradiation.

186. What is the role of clinical pharmacists in oncology?

They assist in chemotherapy dose calculations, drug interactions, patient education, and toxicity management — improving safety and adherence.

187. How to manage anorexia-cachexia in terminal patients?

Nutritional counseling, appetite stimulants like megestrol, and emotional support. Focus shifts to comfort, not weight gain.

188. What are common dermatologic toxicities of cancer drugs?

EGFR inhibitors cause acneiform rash, checkpoint inhibitors may cause vitiligo or lichenoid eruptions. Topical or systemic steroids are often needed.

189. How to differentiate tumour flare from true progression?

Tumour flare is temporary increase in symptoms or size post-therapy, seen with hormonal or immunotherapies. Monitor clinically and radiologically.

190. What supportive measures improve chemo tolerability in elderly?

G-CSF, dose reduction, proactive hydration, fall prevention, and managing comorbidities improve tolerability.

191. What is the importance of a multidisciplinary tumour board?

Ensures collaborative decision-making, improves outcomes, reduces variation, and aligns care with best practices.

192. What is an oncology nurse navigator?

A trained nurse who guides patients through the care continuum, helping with appointments, coordination, education, and emotional support.

193. How to address cancer stigma in rural areas?

Use of culturally sensitive education, community leaders, survivors’ stories, and dispelling myths through outreach programs is key.

194. What role do NGOs play in cancer care?

They offer financial aid, awareness, transportation, screening, rehabilitation, and psychosocial support services.

195. What policies can hospitals implement to support cancer patients financially?

Sliding scale models, empanelment in schemes (PMJAY, MJPJAY), in-house social work teams, and partnership with charitable funds.

196. What vaccines are effective in preventing cancer?

HPV vaccine (cervical, head-neck cancers), Hepatitis B vaccine (liver cancer) — both are WHO-recommended cancer-preventing vaccines.

197. How does air pollution contribute to cancer?

Linked to lung, bladder, and breast cancers. Fine particulate matter (PM2.5) is classified as a Group 1 carcinogen.

198. What is the WHO's global cancer strategy for 2030?

Aims to reduce preventable cancer deaths by scaling up screening, tobacco control, HPV vaccination, and universal access to palliative care.

199. How is tele oncology shaping cancer care access?

Improves access to expert consultations, follow-ups, tumour boards, and survivorship planning — especially in rural or underserved areas.

200. What are priorities for primary care in early cancer detection?

Training in red flag recognition, low-threshold referrals, timely diagnostics, and patient education are foundational.